Federal IT Security Professional (FITSP) Auditor Practice Exam

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• Personnel meet in a classroom to discuss their roles during an emergency. What type of exercise is this?
• Tier 2 of the three-tiered risk management approach addresses risk-related concerns at which level?
• Which publication recommends using the independence standards for an agency's FISMA audit?
• Which control relates to the essential processes of assessing and managing risks to information systems?
• Which type of authorization is not valid according to OMB, despite being used by some agencies?
• What are the possible outcomes of the Authorization Decision?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of an information system?
• What are the four components of the new Risk Management Model?
• Which statement about system security assessments is false?
• What is the main role of the Internet Key Exchange (IKE) in network security?
• What does SAR stand for in security documentation?
• Which of the following is NOT a part of the FISCAM control hierarchy?
• Which of the following is a reason for adjusting a system's provisional impact level?
• Which of the following is NOT an example of actions noted in contingency plans?
• What is the first step to assigning impact levels for security categorization?
• What is the method of reviewing or analyzing one or more assessment objects called?
• Because AH transport mode cannot alter the original IP header, it is generally used in which VPN architecture?
• What technique is commonly used in security to ensure the authenticity of a message?
• What is defined as a simulation of an emergency to validate an Information System Contingency Plan (ISCP)?
• Which of the following is an example of Tier 1 risk?
• Which law directed the Secretary of Health and Human Services to develop electronic health information protection standards?
• Which security control is designed to protect against an individual falsely denying an action?
• The Risk Management Framework (RMF) places heavy emphasis on which aspect?
• Which role is responsible for ensuring that security policies are enforced within an organization?
• What is the primary function of the System Security Plan?
• In the context of information security, what is a primary function of the System Security Plan?
• According to OMB M-14-04, which two individuals must sign the ATO for a new information system to operate?
• Name the AES-based, wireless encryption mechanism used in the 802.11i wireless technical specification.
• The Information Security Program Plan documents which TWO components?
• What protocol, used by IPsec, manages connection settings and authenticates endpoints?
• What VPN model is most commonly used for traveling employees to access organizational services?
• What type of analysis is performed during the Initiation phase of the SDLC?
• Which legislation requires Privacy Impact Assessments when developing new IT?
• Who is responsible for ensuring that information security requirements are addressed in enterprise architecture?
• What is the main goal of the ISCP?
• Which OMB guidance requires federal agencies to review security controls for each system at least every three years?
• Which automated system must agencies use to submit required FISMA reports?
• In terms of IT security, what is the main purpose of establishing a security configuration baseline?
• What is the primary purpose of HSPD-12?
• Blocking outside traffic that claims to be from within the organization is managed by which security control?
• Which key management practice is critical when using public key infrastructure (PKI)?
• FIPS 199 standards apply to which types of systems?
• What form of cryptographic service is used to establish non-repudiation?
• Which task is NOT part of the RMF implementation process?
• In the context of security controls, what does "System-Specific" refer to?
• What is the recommended disposal method for paper-based medical records containing sensitive PII?
• Which agency is responsible for publishing FISMA Reporting Metrics annually?
• Which of the following is NOT a feature of Security Mode 1 in Bluetooth technology?
• In relation to security categorization, which document is crucial for understanding the impact levels?
• Which agency conducts audits of private organizations using electronic health systems?
• Which IPSec protocol can be configured to provide compression for IPSec traffic?
• Which statements are linked to the security control's content to ensure assessment results trace back to control requirements?
• During which phase of the SDLC should an organization consider the security requirements?
• What is defined as a body of evidence organized into an argument to assure claims about an information system?
• What is the first step to assigning impact levels for security categorization?
• What defines the three levels of baseline controls for an information system?
• Which of the following is NOT a key document used for risk-based authorization decisions?
• Which department was assigned by FISMA to prescribe standards for federal information systems?
• Security Controls are allocated into which three designations?
• Which two NIST special publications provide the management overview and risk assessment guidance on risk management?
• How are compensating controls most effectively utilized?
• In cryptography, which term specifically refers to the protection of information from unauthorized access?
• What does FedRAMP provide a standardized approach for?
• Which of the following is NOT a phase of the SDLC?
• Which NIST document lists information types and their associated provisional impact level?
• During which phase of the SDLC are Security Reauthorizations conducted?
• What is the correct order of the four components of risk management?
• Which SCAP specification provides a standard naming convention for operating systems, hardware, and applications?
• What is a key focus of the FedRAMP program?
• Which NIST Special Publication is NOT related to risk management and risk assessment?
• What does the RMF Step 2 emphasize?
• Which security designation describes controls applicable to more than one information system?
• During which phase of the SDLC should the organization consider security requirements?
• Which act outlines guidelines specifically for agency-wide security programs in federal agencies?
• What are some of the threats that an information system faces?
• Which security role is responsible for authorizing the information system's operation?
• What is the automated reporting tool that agencies must use to report data, per DHS direction?
• What is the most significant change regarding security control selection in the revision of the SP 800-37?
• Which method of encryption involves both a public and private key for secure data transmission?
• What type of maintenance is conducted by individuals communicating through a network, as identified by the control identifier MA-4?
• Which NIST Special Publication provides guidance for implementing ISCM?
• What is defined as an identifiable part of a system that is a discrete target of configuration control processes?
• Which control activity does not involve direct protection-related actions?
• What is the purpose of common controls in an organization?
• Which NIST special publication provides guidance on the privacy and legal issues with VOIP?
• What are the two most important factors when selecting a security control assessor?
• Which standard governs the Keyed-Hash Message Authentication Code (HMAC)?
• Which two NIST Special Publications are essential for information security planning?
• What program uses a "do once, use many times" framework to streamline agency security assessments?
• What type of authentication must be used for remote access according to the memo released after the Veterans Affairs incident?
• Which FIPS encryption level requires identity based authentication?
• Which Federal mandate requires agencies to report incidents to US-CERT?
• Which of the following were purposes in introducing overlays in SP 800-53r4?
• Which approach focuses on balancing the protection of agency information with the cost of security controls?
• Under FISMA 2014, which agencies are formally assigned information security responsibilities?
• What policy and standard overlap physical security controls with identification and authentication?
• What does the abbreviation PII stand for in the context of NIST guidance?
• What are the three levels of potential impact from a security breach?
• In which Bluetooth mode are devices considered "promiscuous"?
• After security categorization, which publication specifies the minimum security requirements?
• Name the contingency planning variable that defines the maximum amount of time that a system resource can remain unavailable before there is an unacceptable impact.
• This Standard defines a MAC that employs a cryptographic hash function with a secret key.
• What are the six steps of the RMF process?
• In which document would you find guidance for applying the Risk Management Framework to federal information systems?
• What are some of the threats that an information system faces?
• In which phase of the SDLC are the PIA, BIA, and Security Categorization conducted?
• Early integration of security in the SDLC allows agencies to maximize ROI in their security programs through:
• What is the primary goal of the RMF?
• Which of the following is NOT a cryptographic security service?
• What does SSP refer to after a risk assessment?
• Which aspect is primarily evaluated in security assessments?
• Is it true that more than one method may be required to assess the proper operation of a single security control?
• Which NIST Special Publication details assessment objects for security controls?
• What is the specific type of authorization allowing a system to operate with live data for testing purposes?
• What are the two types of authorization decisions that can be made by authorizing officials?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the incident handling process?
• What is created to correlate the information system with critical mission/business processes?
• Which of the following SCAP specifications provides a standard naming and dictionary of system configuration issues?
• What is the reporting timeframe for a CAT-3 incident categorized under US-CERT?
• What law granted OMB the authority to define policies for US Government Agencies?
• IDPS use this type of detection to identify significant deviations. What is this method called?
• Which type of control is typically the last resort when it comes to mitigating risks?
• What term refers to the techniques that are used to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information?
• What is the basis for the identification of information types?
• Which document provides the results of assessing the implementation of security controls to determine their operational effectiveness?
• What are the six steps of the RMF process?
• What additional approval is required according to OMB Memorandum M-14-04 before issuing an authorization to operate?
• What is the NIST Special Publication that provides guidance for protecting PII?
• Which of the following are the security objectives under FISMA?
• A hard drive pulled from an unclassified information system containing high confidentiality information will be reused. What is the recommended course of media sanitization?
• Which legislation requires an annual evaluation of an agency's information security program by its Inspector General or an external auditor?
• Which NIST Special Publication superseded the original Special Publication 800-30 for risk management guidance?
• What type of cybersecurity training is necessary to ensure staff understands their roles during an incident?
• What is the correct order of the four components of risk management?
• What establishes the scope of protection for organizational information systems?
• What are the main components of security categories used in risk assessment?
• Which directive was established to enhance the security of identities used by Federal agencies?
• What does the Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA) primarily aim to improve?
• What main policy does the Department of Homeland Security encompass regarding information systems?
• Which NIST publication focuses heavily on the Risk Management Framework?
• During which SDLC phase are Security Reauthorizations conducted?
• During which SDLC phase is the training for security personnel conducted?
• What abbreviation represents the effort to provide adequate resources for information security?
• What does the acronym POAM stand for in the context of security assessments?
• What must be conducted to support a security authorization package?
• In which phase of the SDLC are the PIA, BIA, and Security Categorization performed?
• What is the correct order of the four tasks of the assessment step of the RMF?
• What is the FIPS publication that specifies the Rijndael algorithm?
• Which act assigned responsibilities to NIST for developing standards related to securing Federal Information Systems?
• What are security controls that are inheritable by organizational information systems?
• Which NIST document lists information types and their associated provisional impact level?
• What would be the appropriate backup strategy and alternate site combination for a system with a FIPS 199 Availability Impact of MODERATE?
• What significant change was made regarding security control selection in the revision of SP 800-37?
• Which protocol is required by the OMB for Federal agencies to use in vulnerability scanning tools?
• What kind of security control is a management, operational, or technical control employed by an organization in lieu of a recommended security control?
• How often are CFO Agencies required to submit data through CyberScope?
• What is the Homeland Security Presidential Directive that establishes a government-wide identification standard?
• In the sanitization guidelines of NIST SP 800-88, what is the recommended disposal method for paper-based medical records containing sensitive PII?
• What control emphasizes the significance of the security categorization process?
• Which factors influence the level of effort expended when implementing the RMF tasks?
• What is the basis for defining information types?
• What is the US-CERT incident category name and reporting timeframe for a CAT-2 incident?
• What is the overarching goal of the Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA)?
• Name the three tasks of the RMF Categorization step.
• At what point in the SDLC are security controls implemented?
• What framework was introduced for automated assessment of security controls?
• Which of the following DOES NOT cite IT performance measurement as a requirement?
• Which framework does the Federal Government adhere to for privacy controls?
• What drives the level of effort for the selection and implementation of security controls?
• What does the NIST SP 800-60 Volume 2 specifically address?
• What is a well-defined, documented, and approved specification that describes the approved configuration of an information system?
• Applying the first three steps in the RMF to legacy systems can be viewed as a ______ to determine if the necessary and sufficient security controls have been appropriately selected and allocated.
• What is the primary focus of the incident containment phase?
• Which security framework emphasizes a risk management approach to information security?
• Which category falls under the responsibilities of federal agencies as defined by OMB?
• The risk management processes at the information system level link to organizational level processes through which newly defined role in the RMF?
• FIPS 200 provides guidance for security control selection based on what?
• What is the supporting guideline for PE-17 Alternate Work Site?
• ISCM aims to improve security by replacing the "every three years" reauthorization requirement with what type of process?
• Who is primarily responsible for the implementation of security controls in an organization?
• What is the term that represents the total time the system owner is willing to accept a mission/business process outage or disruption?
• In response to the loss of records at the Department of Veteran Affairs, which requirement is NOT mandated by OMB memo M-06-16?
• During which phase of the SDLC should security requirements be defined?
• What is the name of the testing that determines if a change caused issues in unchanged parts of the system?
• The AES algorithm may be used with three different key lengths; which of the following is not a recognized AES flavor?
• Are privacy security requirements adequately addressed by the standard catalog of security controls?
• Where can one find the list of privacy controls required for Federal information systems?
• Which type of testing involves simulating an attack on a system to identify vulnerabilities?
• Which NIST special publication helps facilitate security control assessments in a risk management framework?
• Are Federal information systems required to be re-authorized at least every three years?
• Is teleworking from an employee's residence included under the Alternate Work Site security control?
• Which of the following acts is primarily focused on the cyber defense of critical infrastructure?
• Which directive establishes a national policy for the protection of US critical infrastructure?
• Which NIST Special Publication provides guidance for protecting PII?
• Which document outlines the procedures for responding to cybersecurity incidents?
• Which approach involves continually balancing the protection of agency information and assets with cost considerations?
• Which is a common method for assessing the risk associated with sensitive data?
• Which phase of the SDLC includes the implementation of security controls?
• Which of the following is NOT considered a security testing technique?
• What is the primary goal of the Risk Management Framework (RMF)?
• What security control ensures that an individual cannot deny having performed a particular action?
• In which case can a POAM be utilized effectively?
• What is the objective of the Continuous Monitoring process?
• What is the primary goal of the risk management process?
• What is one of the requirements of the Clinger-Cohen Act for federal agencies?
• Which vulnerability scanning tool is widely used for security assessments?
• What is the policy established for a Common Identification Standard for Federal Employees and Contractors?
• How many business areas are described in the BRM?
• What are the IETF specifications for securing DNS queries to second-level .gov domain servers?
• Who has the primary responsibility for implementing security controls?
• What are the data encryption format and digital certificate standard used by S/MIME?
• What does AU-10 Non-Repudiation primarily address in information security?
• Which federal act emphasizes the importance of securing federal automated information systems?
• Which document outlines the risk assessment process for data systems?
• Which roles must be assigned only to government personnel?
• What documents compose a Security Authorization Package?
• Which practice can help reduce the effort required to assess controls?
• Which special publication provides guidelines on designing, developing, conducting, and evaluating test, training, and exercise events?
• Which NIST Special Publication applies to information systems in employee's residences for telecommuting?
• What legislation requires federal agencies to develop an agency-wide information security program?
• What type of contingency alternate site has all the resources required to assume full processing in case of the loss of the primary site but might result in a short delay before becoming fully operational?
• Which RMF role ensures risk-related considerations are viewed from an organization-wide perspective?
• In which NIST special publication can you find guidance regarding mobile computers using FIPS 140-2 validated cryptographic modules?
• Which FIPS 140-2 encryption level provides environmental protections?
• What are the factors that drive the level of effort for the selection and implementation of security controls?
• Which Bluetooth security mode allows devices to connect without restrictions?
• What type of security control is used in place of a recommended security control?
• Which security mechanism is specifically designed to ensure that a message is not altered in transit?
• Which legislation requires federal agencies to establish capital planning and investment control policies for IT procurement?
• Which role is responsible for ensuring that security requirements are integrated into the systems development lifecycle?
• What e-authentication level requires multifactor authentication and the use of a hard token?
• Which two encryption mechanisms are approved for use by US Federal agencies?
• What program does the OMB use to help agencies identify business processes?
• Which document or report outlines the necessary procedures for the protection of sensitive agency information?
• Which publication provides guidance for interconnecting information technology systems?
• Which type of controls can be inherited by one or more organizational information systems?
• Which element is considered critical in the assessment of IT security processes in agencies?
• Which US Law mandates all agencies to report security incidents to a Federal incident response center?
• Which framework is used to evaluate security controls and how they impact risk management?
• IPSEC protects the integrity of data in transit using which protocol?
• Where are security controls documented?
• What does the acronym PII stand for in data protection?
• When would you use a gap analysis in the RMF process?
• Which VPN technologies are authorized for use by federal agencies?
• Which OMB memo announced the implementation of accepted security configurations for Windows operating systems?
• What OMB memo requires agencies to safeguard against breaches of personally identifiable information?
• What is a valid assessment method for security controls?
• What is the best course of action for media containing classified material that is no longer in use?
• What does the acronym CPIC stand for in the context of information security resource management?
• What is the purpose of using Message Authentication Codes between parties?
• Which of the following represents a factor in adjusting provisional impact levels?
• What initiative aims to create security configuration baselines for IT products deployed federally?
• Which GSA program provides a cost-effective approach for adopting cloud services?
• What is the main purpose of a Tabletop exercise in emergency management?
• Which SCAP specifications provide a standard naming convention for operating systems, hardware, and applications?
• Which legislation mandates the appointment of a Chief Information Officer in federal agencies?
• What establishes the scope of protection for organizational information systems?
• What are the possible outcomes of the Authorization Decision?
• Can the Authorizing Official delegate the decision to authorize?
• What are the two key components affecting the trustworthiness of information systems?
• What is the primary focus of continuous monitoring in security control revisions?
• What is the required frequency for FISMA reporting feeds for CFO Act agencies?
• How many families are security controls organized into?
• Which roles must be assigned only to government personnel?
• What are the components of an information system?
• Which document should detail the weaknesses or deficiencies identified in security controls?
• Which contingency planning variable defines the maximum time a resource can be unavailable before it impacts operations?
• What occurs if an Authorizing Official denies authorization to operate?
• What mechanism is used to authenticate information transmitted between two parties sharing a secret key?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of security control?
• In which phase of contingency planning are recovery activities completed and normal operations resumed?
• Which of the following is NOT a requirement under the OMB memo M-06-16?
• Which two protocols refer to the same underlying protocol in different terms?
• Which type of assessment reviews the potential impact of a failure in a system?